Showing posts with label Pharmacy aptitude. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Pharmacy aptitude. Show all posts

Thursday, 16 February 2012

Pharmacy Websites


AAPS – www.aaps.org
Information on officers, activities and membership from the American Association of Pharmaceutical Scientists.
ABPI -- www.abpi.org.uk/_private/welcome/default.htm
Info from the Association of the British Pharmaceutical Industry for companies producing prescription medicines.

Tuesday, 7 February 2012

What is the meaning of OTC drugs or OTC formulation?


Over-the-counter (OTC) drugs are medicines that may be sold directly to a consumer without a prescription from a healthcare professional, as compared to prescription drugs, which may be sold only to consumers possessing a valid prescription. In many countries, OTC drugs are selected by a regulatory agency to ensure that they are ingredients that are safe and effective when used without a physician's care. OTC drugs are usually regulated by active pharmaceutical ingredients (APIs), not final products. By regulating APIs instead of specific drug formulations, governments allow manufacturers freedom to formulate ingredients, or combinations of ingredients, into proprietary mixtures.

Pharmaceutical abbreviations


  1. You should know and be able to use or interpret the BOLD FACED Latin abbreviations and their English meaning. The complete Latin equivalent is not required. This list has been selected from the typical Latin abbreviation listing and represents those abbreviations widely used in veterinary medicine.
  2. You should know and be able to use the various terms for weights and measures for the Metric and Apothecaries' systems. For the Apothecaries' system, you need only know the term "grain" and the relationship between "fluid ounces" and "pint".
  3. You should be able to interconvert between the systems, those relations that are printed below in bold typeface, using the approximate equivalencies. These conversions are commonly used in veterinary medicine and/or everyday living. 

What is Relative Market Share (RMS)?


Relative market share indexes a firm's or a brand's market share against that of its leading competitor.
Market concentration, a related metric, measures the degree to which a comparatively small number of firms account for a large proportion of the market.
These metrics are useful in comparing a firm's or a brand's relative position across different markets and in evaluating the type and degree of competition in those markets.
This indicates likely cash generation, because the higher the share the more cash will be generated. As a result of 'economies of scale' (a basic assumption of the BCG Matrix), it is assumed that these earnings will grow faster the higher the share.

Meaning of PTS


PTS is short form of "Price to Stockist". 
PTS (Price to Stockiest) is general term used by pharma companies to mention the price of particular product offered to stockiest or distributor.
PTS is inclusive of VAT to be paid by Stockiest to the central government.
The sales of company are generally calculated by PTS for particular product.
Sales of product= PTS * Quantity of product sold from stockiest

Meaning of PTR


PTR is short form of "Price to Retailer".
PTR is general term frequently used by companies to mention the price of product offered to retailer.
PTR must not be confused with MRP (Maximum Retail Price). 
PTR is inclusive of VAT (Value Added Tax by Company or Stockist)

What is the essential/ mandatory information that is required to be printed on the label of the medicine pack?


The following information is required to be printed on the label of a medicine under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act and DPCO, 1995.
a.  Name of the formulation
b.  Composition of the formulation
c.   Pack Size
d.  Address of the manufacturer
e.   Manufacturing License Number
f.    Date of manufacture
g.   Expiry Date
h.  Maximum Retail Price (Excluding Local Taxes) etc.

Worlds Major Regulatory Affairs Authorities


1. World Health Organisation (WHO)
2. US Food and Drug Administartion (USFDA) - USA
3. European Medicine Agency (EMEA) - Europe
4. Japanese Pharmaceuticals and Medical Devices Agency (PMDA)
5. Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA)
6. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA) – Australia
7. Central Drug Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)- India
8. State Food and Drug Administration (SFDA) - China
9. Health Canada - Canada
10. National Health Surveillance Agency (Anvisa) – Brazil

Counterfeit Drugs: Definition


What is a counterfeit drug?

In accordance with Black's law dictionary,' the term "counterfeit drug" may be used to describe а drug made by someone other than the genuine manufacturer, by copying or imitating an original product without authority or right, with а view to deceive or defraud, and then marketing the copied or forged drug as the original. In reality, however, а counterfeit drug is defined differently in different countries.
The absence of а universally accepted definition not only makes information exchange between countries very difficult but it also limits the ability to understand the true extent of the problem at global level. In order to address this problem the following definition has been developed by the World Health Organization:
"А counterfeit medicine is one which is deliberately and fraudulently mislabeled with respect to identity and/or source. Counterfeiting can apply to both branded and generic products and counterfeit products may include products with the correct ingredients or with the wrong ingredients, without active ingredients, with insufficient active ingredients or with fake packaging."

Monday, 6 February 2012

What is Drug Master File (DMF)?


Drug Master File (DMF) is a document prepared by a pharmaceutical manufacturer and submitted solely at its discretion to the appropriate regulatory authority in the intended drug market. There is no regulatory requirement to file a DMF.
However, the document provides the regulatory authority with confidential, detailed information about facilities, processes, or articles used in the manufacturing, processing, packaging, and storing of one or more human drugs.
Typically, a DMF is filed when two or more firms work in partnership on developing or manufacturing a drug product. 

Wednesday, 23 November 2011

Here is the free online test available for all the GPAT aspirants.
This test will allow you to know the level of your preparation.
Just CLICK ON "PREGPAT" under Pages(on the right sidebar), fill the brief form & start the exam.
It is a limited time exam & there is no negative marking.
You will instantly get your result after you submit your answers.
We welcome your valuable feedback.


Tuesday, 23 August 2011

GPAT model paper-1

OPTIM PHARMA:-
Q.1 Distribution of drug in human body is depends on its
a) Dissociation constant b) Type of dosage form in which it dispensed
c) Route of drug administration d) All of these

Q.2 Procaine can be synthesized from
a) 4-Aminobenzoic acid & 2-hydroxytriethyl amine b) Sodium p-aminobenzoate & 2-chlorotriethyl amine
c) 2-Chloroethyl ester of 4-aminobenzoic acid & diethyl amine d) All of these

Q.3 UV spectroscopy is the type of
a) Emission spectroscopy b) Absorption spectroscopy c) Vibrational spectroscopy d) None of these

Q.4 Atropine ha s least effect on
a) CNS b) Autonomic ganglia c) Liver d) CVS

Q.5 Galactorrhoea is likely occur with long term use of a drug
a) Levodopa b) Domperidone c) Metoclopramide d) Selegiline

Q.6 G-protein coupled receptors are
a) Cell membrane receptor b) Cell surface receptor c) Enzymatic receptor d) Nuclear receptor

Q.7 The starting material for the synthesis of primaquine is
a) 8-amino-6-hydroxyquinoline b) 8-amino-5-hydroxyquinoline
c) 8-amino-6-methoxyquinoline d) 8-amino-6-ethoxyquinoline

Q.8 Activation of TLC plates means
a) Spotting the sample over it
b) Saturation of TLC with mobile phase
c) Development of chromatogram
d) Removing of moisture from the adsorbent layer

Q.9 A mosquito repellent volatile oil is obtained from
a) Artemisia brevifolia b) Cymbopogon nardus c) Trachyspermum ammi d) Cymbopogon flexuosus

Q.10 Which one of the following antibodies contributes in immune response through cytolytic action?
a) IgG, IgE b) IgG, IgM c) IgA, IgM d) IgA, IgD

Q.11 When partial agonist is administered along with agonist. The effect of agonist may be
a) Potentiated b) Suppressed c) Unchanged d) Depends on the type and nature of receptor

Q.12 2-bromopyridine + Benzyl cyanide + 2-(dimethyl amino) ethyl chloride gives
a) Mepyramine b) Triprolidine c) Pheniramine d) Bromopheniramine

Q.13 In UV-Visible spectroscopy, shift in λmax toward longer wavelength is known as
a) Hyperchromic shift b) Hyspsochromic shift c) Hypochromic shift d) Bathochromic shift

Q.14 List of minimum equipments required for efficient running of pharmacy is given in schedule
a) M b) A c) N d) R

Q.15 The proteolytic enzyme obtained from plant origin is
a) Pepsin b) Diastase c) Papain d) Renin

Q.16 Cantharidin, used as counter-irritant is obtained from
a) Stem wood of santalaceae family b) Roots of piperaceae
c) Insets of meloidae family d) Aerial part of chenopodiaceae family

Q.17 All of the following are antimetabolite except
a) Methotrexate b) Thioguanine c) Procarbazene d) Cytarabine

Q.18 Which one of the following drug is likely redistributed in human body?
a) Drug with high aqueous solubility b) Drug with very low aqueous solubility
c) Intermediate aqueous solubility d) Drug with very low lipid solubility

Q.19 All of the following are tablet processing problems except
a) Roughness b) Sticking & picking c) Capping & lamination d) Double impression

Q.20 An example of thermal conductivity detector is
a) Kathrometer b) Flame ionization detector c) Electron capture detector d) Bolometer

Q.21 All of the following are biogenetically derived from tyrosine except
a) Colchicine b) Morphine c) Codein d) None of these

Q.22 Phenobarbitone is a
a) Short acting barbiturate b) Long acting barbiturate
c) Intermediate acting barbiturate d) Ultra short acting barbiturate

Q.23 Which one of the following agent should avoided in acute congestive glaucoma?
a) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor b) β-blocker c) Miotics d) α-agonist

Q.24 Wruster process is used to coat solid particles of size range
a) 1 – 5000μm b) 5 – 5000μm c) 35 – 5000μm d) 600 - 5000μm

Q.25 Sta-Rx-1500 is used in tablet formulation as
a) Diluent b) Disintergrant c) Binder d) Glidant

Q.26 The reference standard used in ESR is
a) Trimethylsilane b) Diphenyl picryl hydrazyl c) Methyl silane d) Tstramethylsilane

Q.27 Stomatal index is used as analytical constant for identification and authentification of
a) Baark drug b) Volatile oil c) Leaf drug d) Fixed oil

Q.28“Tachyphylaxis” is related to
a) Development of tolerance due to repeated use of drug b) Development of tolerance to pharmacological related drug
c) Rapid development of tolerance d) Resistance of microorganism to inhibitory action of antimicrobials

Q.29 The education regulation of pharmacy are laid down by
a) Central government b) Pharmacy council of India c) State government d) State pharmacy council

Q.30 Avicel is used in tablet formulation as
a) Diluent b) Disintergrant c) Binder d) Glidant

Q.31 Nitrogen rule is related to
a) Mass spectroscopy b) IR spectroscopy c) UV-visible spectroscopy d) NMR spectroscopy

Q.32 Micoscopic character of quillaia saponaria is
a) Anisocytic stomata b) Thin membrane arillus c) Clothing and glandular trichomes d) Rhytidomes

Q.33 Allosteric type of enzyme inhibition may
a) Both Km value & Vmax may remained unchanged
b) Km value unchanged & Vmax decrease
c) Decrease both Km value & Vmax
d) Increase both Km value & Vmax

Q.34 Dibenzthiazepine derivative is
a) Olanzapine b) Clozapine c) Quetiapine d) Loxapine

Q.35 Which one of the following adverse effect of the drugs is very common among persons having similar genetic make-up?
a) Intolerance b) Photosensitivity c) Idiosyncrasy d) Mutagenicity

Optim Pharma


Q.36 Over use of which of the following drug may cause parkinsonism?
a) Levodopa b) Domperidone c) Imipramine d) Chlorpromazine

Q.37 The main active constituent present the eucalyptus oil is
a) Alpha-pinene b) Limonene c) 1:8 Cineole d) Menthol

Q.38 The number of NMR signal expected for CH3-CH2-Cl is
a) 3 b) 5 c) 2 d) 4

Q.39 A solution of thermolabile drug is sterilized by
a) Gaseous sterilization b) Hot air sterilization c) Bacterial proof filtration d) Autoclave

Q.40 Fifth edition of I.P. is published in the year
a) 1985 b) 1996 c) 2007 d) 2005

Q.41 Remoxipride is a
a) Benzamide b) β-aminoketone c) Fluorobutyrophenone d) Dibenzoxazepine

Q.42 Laboratory glass ware are sterilized by
a) Gaseous sterilization b) Hot air sterilization c) Autoclave d) Treating with disinfectant

Q.43 The bitter principle of nux-vomica seeds is
a) Strychniine & brucine b) Eseramine & eseroline c) Ergosine & ergocornine d) Berberine & hydrastine

Q.44 Which type of light is measured in nephalometric analysis?
a) Scattered light b) Absorbed light c) Transmitted light d) None of these

Q.45 Which one of the following drug is used for treatment of myasthenia gravis?
a) Physostigmine b) Pilocarpine c) Edrophonium d) Pyridostigmine

Q.46 Emulsifier is added in emulsion to prevent
a) Phase inversion b) Creaming c) Coalescence d) All of these

Q.47 Which one of the following drug belonging from diphenylbutylpiperidine class?
a) Penfluridol b) Haloperidol c) Resperidone d) Sulpieride

Q.48 The principle of separation in paper chromatography is mainly
a) Adsorption b) Fractionation c) Partition d) Selective adsorption

Q.49 The presence of candelabra trichomes is microscopic feature of the drug listed a to d.
a) Digitalis purpurea b) Alexandrian senna c) Datura leaves d) Verbascum Thapsus

Q.50 Which one of the drug acts directly to alter fungal cell membrane permeability?
a) Ampicillin b) Polymixin B c) Amphotericin B d) Streptomycin

Q.51 Education institutions providing pharmacy education are approved by the
a) Central government
b) Pharmacy council of India
c) Drug controller of India
d) State pharmacy council

Q.52 The material used for manufacturing of grating in IR spectrophotometer is
a) Quartz b) Glass c) Alkali halide d) Polystyrene

Q.53 All of the following agents consisting dibenz[b,f]azepine ring system except
a) Carbamazepine b) Imipramine c) Trimipramine d) Amitryptyline

Q.54 How much eugenol does the volatile oil of clove contains?
a) 15 to 20 % b) 70 to 90 % c) 10 to 13 % d) 30 to 35 %

Q.55 Which of the following binds covalently to the site specified?
a) Atenolol – Beta receptors
b) Labetalol – Alpha & beta receptors
c) Phenoxybenzamine – Alpha receptors
d) Pindolol - Beta receptors

Q.56 The standard potential of a hydrogen electrode is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 100 d) 7

Q.57 Which one of the following drug is less effective in patient suffering from liver disease?
a) Drug having higher presystemic metabolism b) Prodrug
c) Acidic drug d) Basic drug

Q.58 Metabolism of carbamazepine is proceeds mainly through
a) Acetylation b) Epoxide formation c) Sulfide formation d) Sulfoxide formation

Q.59 Saturated picric acid solution in cold water used for the detection of alkaloid is known as
a) Hager reagent b) Mayer’s reagent c) Dragendorff’ss reagent d) Wagner’s reagent

Q.60 Which one of the following electrode is used in conductivity cell?
a) Platinum electrode b) Calomel electrode c) Dropping mercury electrode d) Glass electrode

Q.61 In an ideal suspension, the sedimentation volume should be
a) Less than one b) Zero c) Equal to one d) Between zero to one

Q.62 An anticholinergics effective in noctural enuresis is
a) Pirenzepine b) Propantheline c) Flavoxate d) Drotaverine

Q.63 Shellac is a resin obtained from an inset laccifera iacca, and it is used as a
a) Colouring matter b) Coating material c) Anthelmintics d) Base of ointment

Q.64 Vaccines are sterilized at
a) 55 – 60 oC b) 134 – 138 oC c) 115 – 118 oC d) 90 – 100 oC

Q.65 Which type of molecule is less fluorescent?
a) Saturated molecule b) Unsaturated molecule c) Molecule with electron withdrawing groups d) Can’t say

Q.66 A drug represents SSRIs and 5HT2A antagonist is
a) Citalopram b) Maprotiline c) Trazodone d) Amoxapine

Q.67 Rate constant of zero-order kinetics is expressed as (C0= Initial concentration of drug in plasma, Ct = concentration of drug in plasma at
time t )
a) Ct – C0 / t b) (Co – Ct ) t c) (Co – Ct ) / t d) None of these

Q.68 Which one of the following drug included in “dope test” for athletes?
a) Propranolol b) Prazosin c) Dexamphetamine d) Diazepam

Q.69 Which one of the following parameter is important for passive diffusion of drugs from gastrointestinal tract?
a) Permeability coefficient b) Dissolution constant c) pH of absorption site d) Dissociation constant

Q.70 Polarographic maxima can be avoided by using
a) Supporting electrolyte b) Purging with nitrogen c) Gelatin d) Less potential is applied across the electrode

Q.71 Gelatin I.P. should comply with
a) Limit test for chloride b) Limit test for sulfate c) Microbial limits d) Sterility test

Optim Pharma

Q.72 Oxazepine derivative is
a) Amoxapine b) Olanzapine c) Doxepin d) Maprotiline

Q.73 An early sign of instability in an emulsion is detected by
a) Phase inversion b) Breaking c) Coalescence d) Phase separation

Q.74 Which of the following statement is correct regarding a drug exhibits elimination by zero-order kinetic?
a) Biological half-life is constant
b) Both clearance and biological half-life is constant
c) Rate of elimination is constant
d) Clearance is constant

Q.75 Some of the antihistaminic are also effective in parkinsonism because of their
a) Sedative property b) Dopaminergic activity c) Anticholinergic activity d) All of these

Q.76 General structural formula of oximes is
a) R-N=CH-OH b) R-NH-OH c) R-N=O d) R-CH=N-OH

Q.77 Dog senna an adulterant of senna which is obtained from
a) Cassia auriculata b) Cassia obovata c) Cassia fistula d) Cassia cinnamon

Q.78 An important reaction for the synthesis of amino acid from carbohydrate intermediate is transamination which requires the co-factor
a) Thiamine b) Riboflavin c) Niacin d) Pyridoxal phosphate

Q.79 Solutions of two different solids are said to isotonic if they have almost similar
a) Surface tension b) Viscosity c) Concentration d) Osmotic pressure

Q.80 Drug release from inert polymeric matrix is expressed by the
a) Hixson-Cronwell equation
b) Higuchi equation
c) Noyes-Whitney equation
d) Handerson-Hasselbatch equation

Q.81 All of the following are effective in parkinsonism except
a) Biperiden b) Procyclidine c) Trihexyphenidyl d) Propantheline

Q.82 Wool fat is the another name of
a) Bees wax b) Lanolin c) Spermaceti d) Kokum butter

Q.83 The sites of oxidative deamination are
a) Skin and pancrease b) Intestine and mammary glands c) Liver and kidney d) Lung and spleen

Q.84 Structured vehicles are added in deflocculated suspension to
a) Decrease interfacial tension b) Increase wetability c) Decrease sedimentation rate d) All of these

Q.85 All of the following are reversible cholinesterase inhibitor as well as quartenary ammonium compound except
a) Edrophonium b) Physostigmine c) Pyridostigmine d) Neostigmine

Q.86 Nernst equation is used to measure
a) Absorbance b) Turbidity c) Electrode potential d) Diffusion current

Q.87 In chromatographic analysis Rf value range from
a) 1 – 100 b) 0 – 1 c) -1 – +1 d) 0 – 10

Q.88 Anthraquinone of cascara contain mainly
a) C-glucosides b) N-glucosides c) O-glucosides d) S-glucosides

Q.89 Diphenhydramine is a
a) An amide b) Amino alkyl ether c) Amino alkyl ester d) An aldehyde

Q.90 The members of the DTAB hold the office for
a) 5 yrs b) 3 yrs c) 7 yrs d) 1 yrs

Q.91 Which one of the following is most suitable diluent for directly compressible tablet?
a) Polyvinyl pyrrolidine
b) Hydroxy propyl methyl cellulose
c) Carboxy methyl cellulose
d) Microcrystalline cellulose

Q.92 Which one of the following organ has greatest capacity to biotransform the drugs?
a) Kidney b) Skin c) Liver d) Heart

Q.93 Klunge’s test is a
a) Thalloquintest for quinines b) Bortragers test for anthraquinones
c) Legal’s test for cardenolides d) Cupraloin test for isobarbaloin

Q.94 Naproxen is synthesized from
a) 2-Methoxy naphthalene c) 4-Phenoxyacetophene c) 2-Chloronaphthalene d) Phenylhydrazine

Q.95 Most major metabolic pathways are considered mainly either anabolic or catabolic. Which of the following pathway is most correctly
considered to be amphibolic?
a) Glycolysis b) Citric acid cycle c) Gluconeogenesis d) Lipolysis

Q.96 Which of the following oil is used as non-aqueous vehicle for intramuscular injection?
a) Castor oil b) Sesame oil c) Linseed oil d) Mustard oil

Q.97 At the end point in the potentiometric titration the
a) Potential is maximum b) Change in potential in minimum
c) Potential is minimum d) Change in potential in maximum

Q.98 Creams are
a) Ointment b) Gels c) Elixir d) Emulsion

Q.99 Aspirin is preferably prepared by which method of tablet manufacturing?
a) Direct compression b) Wet granulation c) Dry granulation d) Direct compression & dry granulation

Q.100 The initial step of the citric acid cycle is
a) Condensation of acetyl-CoA with oxaloacetate
b) Coneversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA
c) Conversion of citrate to isocitrate
d) Formation of apha ketoglutarate catalyzed by isocitrate